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11th Amendment and Commerce Clause

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JakeB

Member
What is the name of your state? N/A, but for discussion Texas

The 11th Amendment prevents an individual from suing a state in federal court.

The Judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by Citizens of another State, or by Citizens or Subjects of any Foreign State.

Why are people allowed to sue states in federal court under Commerce Clause violation theories?

Example: Hughes v. Oklahoma

Thank you!
 


fairisfair

Senior Member
I will however give you this. Look up Filburn; Filbert, or is that Delbert? Ah, we will just stick with Jack A.


and only because you need something to occupy your time other than annoying people.
 
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fairisfair

Senior Member
LOL. You got me there. Except I'll disagree that it was idiotic to call out Mr. Homework.

now run along and look up Filburn;)

by the way, we don't do homework, and that is a standard response. LeeHarvey was perfectly correct in giving it to you.
 

JakeB

Member
now run along and look up Filburn;)
Thanks for trying, but I don't think Wickard v. Filburn answers my question. That case made it clear that the feds can regulate commerce, but it doesn't explain why a private party can sue a state in federal court for violating the Commerce Clause.

What I'm saying is that some of the Commcerce Clause cases seem contradictory to the 11th Amendment. The 11th Amendment states that an individual cannot sue a state in federal court. Why was Hughes allowed to sue Oklahoma in federal court?

by the way, we don't do homework, and that is a standard response. LeeHarvey was perfectly correct in giving it to you.
It may be a standard response, but the assumption was not correct, and in my opinion there was no good reason to make that assumption.
 

JakeB

Member
Thanks for trying, but I don't think Wickard v. Filburn answers my question. That case made it clear that the feds can regulate commerce, but it doesn't explain why a private party can sue a state in federal court for violating the Commerce Clause.

What I'm saying is that some of the Commcerce Clause cases seem contradictory to the 11th Amendment. The 11th Amendment states that an individual cannot sue a state in federal court. Why was Hughes allowed to sue Oklahoma in federal court?

Well, after much research I finally figured out the answer.

Thanks anyway people.
 

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