Prima5 said:
Thanks! That's what I thought. Reason I ask is because I am a government student and it's been argued that because the Constitution has no provision for same sex marriage, that if a same sex couple marries in a state that allows same sex marriage, that marriage license is a contract and that contract should be recognized over state lines, just like marriage contracts between a man and a woman. Any thoughts?
My response:
That's where you're wrong. Marriage is not a "contract". It's a legal "bond." As such, the various states are free to decide which types of marriages they will recognize; e.g., California will not recognize a Gay marriage.
Pursuant to the federal Defense of Marriage Act, "no State, territory, or possession of the United States, or Indian tribe, shall be required to give effect to any public act, record, or judicial proceeding of any other State, territory, possession, or tribe" regarding a same-sex relationship between persons that is treated as a "marriage" under the laws of the other State, territory, possession or tribe, or to "a right or claim arising from such relationship." [28 USCA § 1738C; Knight v. Super.Ct. (Schwarzenegger) (2005) 128 Cal.App.4th 14, 20, 26 Cal.Rptr.3d 687, 691]
More specifically with regard to the extraterritorial recognition of a "marriage," California's Defense of Marriage Act bars the recognition in California of same-sex marriages that have been, or may in the future be, legitimized by laws of other jurisdictions. [Ca Fam § 308.5 (Prop. 22)--"Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California"; see Armijo v. Miles (2005) 127 Cal.App.4th 1405, 1424, 26 Cal.Rptr.3d 623, 637; Knight v. Super.Ct. (Schwarzenegger) 128 Cal.App.4th at 20, 26 Cal.Rptr.3d at 691--"In other words, section 308.5 supplants the directive of section 308 in the case of same-sex marriages"]
IAAL