What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? New Mexico
About six years ago, I ran into serious financial problems and was unable to catch up on the mortgage for a home that I had purchased as an investment.
Unfortunately, I lost the home through foreclosure. I later learned that the mortgage company had sold the home and obtained a deficiency judgment against me. Although I did not receive notice to this effect, I did confirm it online by searching the court case relating to this matter. What I do not understand is why I have since purchased and sold several properties, all of which were handled by title companies which issued title binders and/or title policies both to myself, in some cases and the buyers, in others.
Although I am not complaining, I am wondering why this deficiency judgment did not interfere with obtaining clear titles and did not show up as a lien against me or the properties. Can someone explain how this type of judgment works and how or if it differs from a lien?
About six years ago, I ran into serious financial problems and was unable to catch up on the mortgage for a home that I had purchased as an investment.
Unfortunately, I lost the home through foreclosure. I later learned that the mortgage company had sold the home and obtained a deficiency judgment against me. Although I did not receive notice to this effect, I did confirm it online by searching the court case relating to this matter. What I do not understand is why I have since purchased and sold several properties, all of which were handled by title companies which issued title binders and/or title policies both to myself, in some cases and the buyers, in others.
Although I am not complaining, I am wondering why this deficiency judgment did not interfere with obtaining clear titles and did not show up as a lien against me or the properties. Can someone explain how this type of judgment works and how or if it differs from a lien?