I live in California
I'll try to make it as detailed as possible
I was given an Intermittent FMLA paper by my doctor on October, 28 2015 ( Under notes my doctor specified my fmla should cover from september 25 2015 to september 25 2016). My company outsources everything relating to HR to another company down in MI. So i faxed the paper to them and then i showed it to the on site HR rep (fax confirmation) so they could remove a previous warning i had, which they did, so i thought the problem was over and i stupidly threw the fax confirmation away. Later the outsource company started to send me notices that the paperwork was incomplete and they would highlight the areas of were the missing info was, even though the information was right below it. So i ignored them thinking it was an automated response and that it would clear up. January and February were pretty bad months for me and i missed some work and i used the fmla days. Got some notices again but wrongly ignored them because i thought that if there were any problems I would show them the papers and that was that. Fast forward to March 22 and i get called into HR here at my job and they hit me with a 180 day probation that started a month back from the day and they told me (february 25). I used some fmla days during that month that were not covered by fmla according to them, so i was basically going to get fired, so i called that outsourced company and i send them the fmla packet by fax again, now they tell me that the doctor's signature is outdated and that i need a new one, but that anything before Feb. 25 would not be covered, even though the note specifies it should, so i get them an updated fmla packet, still stating that it should cover from sep 25 2015 to sep 25 2016. They never honored that date, but they lowered the 180 day probation to a 2nd warning. I tried applying for a new position and they denied it because of those days. My question is if they are violating my rights? or are they doing the right thing? Another thing is my vacation days, the contract states that an employee must have worked 1600 hours for a full vacation, and if they do not have those hours worked they get 1 day every 150 hours worked (i've been here 3 years that's why). I called in a vacation day and they rejected that too. Is that violating my rights as an employee too?
I'll try to make it as detailed as possible
I was given an Intermittent FMLA paper by my doctor on October, 28 2015 ( Under notes my doctor specified my fmla should cover from september 25 2015 to september 25 2016). My company outsources everything relating to HR to another company down in MI. So i faxed the paper to them and then i showed it to the on site HR rep (fax confirmation) so they could remove a previous warning i had, which they did, so i thought the problem was over and i stupidly threw the fax confirmation away. Later the outsource company started to send me notices that the paperwork was incomplete and they would highlight the areas of were the missing info was, even though the information was right below it. So i ignored them thinking it was an automated response and that it would clear up. January and February were pretty bad months for me and i missed some work and i used the fmla days. Got some notices again but wrongly ignored them because i thought that if there were any problems I would show them the papers and that was that. Fast forward to March 22 and i get called into HR here at my job and they hit me with a 180 day probation that started a month back from the day and they told me (february 25). I used some fmla days during that month that were not covered by fmla according to them, so i was basically going to get fired, so i called that outsourced company and i send them the fmla packet by fax again, now they tell me that the doctor's signature is outdated and that i need a new one, but that anything before Feb. 25 would not be covered, even though the note specifies it should, so i get them an updated fmla packet, still stating that it should cover from sep 25 2015 to sep 25 2016. They never honored that date, but they lowered the 180 day probation to a 2nd warning. I tried applying for a new position and they denied it because of those days. My question is if they are violating my rights? or are they doing the right thing? Another thing is my vacation days, the contract states that an employee must have worked 1600 hours for a full vacation, and if they do not have those hours worked they get 1 day every 150 hours worked (i've been here 3 years that's why). I called in a vacation day and they rejected that too. Is that violating my rights as an employee too?