sandyclaus
Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? OK
Wasn't QUITE sure where to put this one, but here goes.
Husband buys a horse from a private seller about two months ago. Decides to re-sell the horse recently to another person. The wife finds out that the horse was sold, and comes back to the new owner a few days ago, and demands to take the horse back because she feels that her husband sold the horse for less than what it was worth. At this point, she is willing to let the buyer keep the horse if he pays her the difference between the purchase price and what she feels the horse is worth.
Pertinent details:
The husband received a bill of sale from the person he bought the horse from, but never issued a new one to the newest owner at the time he sold it. I'm unclear whether or not a horse must be "registered" to a particular owner before he can be sold?
Wife is claiming she has rights to do what she is doing because she says OK is an "equitable distribution" state. I'm aware that this term comes into play when the two parties are divorcing and distributing property, but does that have any significance in the sale of property during the marriage? Do the husband and wife need to agree on terms to sell what could be considered marital property? Would either party (husband or wife) have the right to void a sale of marital property during the marriage if they didn't agree to the terms that the other spouse established for the sale? For that matter, would a spouse be able to change the terms of a sale they didn't agree with DURING a divorce because they feel they aren't getting the full value of the item sold?
Wasn't QUITE sure where to put this one, but here goes.
Husband buys a horse from a private seller about two months ago. Decides to re-sell the horse recently to another person. The wife finds out that the horse was sold, and comes back to the new owner a few days ago, and demands to take the horse back because she feels that her husband sold the horse for less than what it was worth. At this point, she is willing to let the buyer keep the horse if he pays her the difference between the purchase price and what she feels the horse is worth.
Pertinent details:
The husband received a bill of sale from the person he bought the horse from, but never issued a new one to the newest owner at the time he sold it. I'm unclear whether or not a horse must be "registered" to a particular owner before he can be sold?
Wife is claiming she has rights to do what she is doing because she says OK is an "equitable distribution" state. I'm aware that this term comes into play when the two parties are divorcing and distributing property, but does that have any significance in the sale of property during the marriage? Do the husband and wife need to agree on terms to sell what could be considered marital property? Would either party (husband or wife) have the right to void a sale of marital property during the marriage if they didn't agree to the terms that the other spouse established for the sale? For that matter, would a spouse be able to change the terms of a sale they didn't agree with DURING a divorce because they feel they aren't getting the full value of the item sold?