Colorado - I was married (10 years), but almost all income showed in my name only, because x-husband could not (would not) maintain employment. He supposedly worked for me (under the table). He actually worked very little, when at all. All the time he drew VA disability (bogus). When he took off, he took financial gains that were gained through my efforts (nearly $100,000). The reason that was allowed was that, as a community property state, he was supposedly entitled to 1/2 of what I owned (whether I owned it prior to the marraige or not or whether he paid into anything or not). He had nothing coming into the marraige and contributed nothing while in the marraige. He NEVER made a mortgage payment, a utility payment, an insurance payment, a grocery purchase, NOTHING. Now the IRS is coming back on me for some back taxes for that time period. I contend that since he was supposedly 1/2 of the marraige and entitled to 1/2 of the assets, he should also be responsible for 1/2 of any debts (although I paid all of the other debts from the marraige). Am I right or wrong and why?