What is the name of your state? South Carolina
I got into a lease/purchase thing last year whereby I leased a mobile home for 7 months while I tried to qualify for financing. The purchase offer was written that the deal was contingent on me finding suitable financing. There was the purchase offer/agreement which everybody signed and then a lease covering the 7 months that only I signed. The seller/landlord didn't sign it at the time because he "wanted to get someone to look this thing over for him". It was a standard form lease I had downloaded off the internet.
Well he never did sign the thing and I asked him on two seperate occasions for a signed copy back and he never did produce it.
I could not qualify for financing (I have a bankruptcy that was 2 years old at that time) and every lender I talked to wanted at least 25% down (the place being a mobile home didn't help) and I couldn't come up with that. I delivered written notice to the seller/landlord 40 days prior to the expiration of the lease (September 30) that I could not qualify for financing and would have to move out at the end of the lease term.
The guy became enraged. Badgered me at work to the point where my boss got really irritated with him and the situation. Then on September 30 when I went over to do my final clean-up after the move out he had already locked me out and changed the alarm code. My rent was paid THRU September 30 therefore he locked me out early. I always paid him on time and with good funds.
Now 7 months later he is suing me in summary court for "damages" to his property using the unsigned lease as an "exhibit". The copy he filed with the court is still unsigned on his part. It was like he wasn't going to sign the thing if it could be used against him but yet he wants to use it against me.
Can he use this as grounds to sue me if he never signed it?
I got into a lease/purchase thing last year whereby I leased a mobile home for 7 months while I tried to qualify for financing. The purchase offer was written that the deal was contingent on me finding suitable financing. There was the purchase offer/agreement which everybody signed and then a lease covering the 7 months that only I signed. The seller/landlord didn't sign it at the time because he "wanted to get someone to look this thing over for him". It was a standard form lease I had downloaded off the internet.
Well he never did sign the thing and I asked him on two seperate occasions for a signed copy back and he never did produce it.
I could not qualify for financing (I have a bankruptcy that was 2 years old at that time) and every lender I talked to wanted at least 25% down (the place being a mobile home didn't help) and I couldn't come up with that. I delivered written notice to the seller/landlord 40 days prior to the expiration of the lease (September 30) that I could not qualify for financing and would have to move out at the end of the lease term.
The guy became enraged. Badgered me at work to the point where my boss got really irritated with him and the situation. Then on September 30 when I went over to do my final clean-up after the move out he had already locked me out and changed the alarm code. My rent was paid THRU September 30 therefore he locked me out early. I always paid him on time and with good funds.
Now 7 months later he is suing me in summary court for "damages" to his property using the unsigned lease as an "exhibit". The copy he filed with the court is still unsigned on his part. It was like he wasn't going to sign the thing if it could be used against him but yet he wants to use it against me.
Can he use this as grounds to sue me if he never signed it?