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Need info. on "Child's Share"

  • Thread starter Thread starter goodchildkh
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goodchildkh

Guest
My husband's mother died 18 years ago, leaving everything to his father. His father says he intends to leave his assets to his newwife.

His father's major asset is the house my husband grew up ,worth about $400,000. Does my husband have a right to any money from the sale of this house?


I have heard of something called a "Child's Share", meaning, I suppose, is that b/c my husband's mother worked to pay for the house for years, she or her heirs (her children) deserve a share of the proceeds from the sale.

Is there any legal basis for a "child's share?"
 


LegalBeagle

Senior Member
goodchildkh said:
My husband's mother died 18 years ago, leaving everything to his father. His father says he intends to leave his assets to his newwife.

His father's major asset is the house my husband grew up ,worth about $400,000. Does my husband have a right to any money from the sale of this house?


I have heard of something called a "Child's Share", meaning, I suppose, is that b/c my husband's mother worked to pay for the house for years, she or her heirs (her children) deserve a share of the proceeds from the sale.

Is there any legal basis for a "child's share?"

This is the wrong board to ask this question and you might want to repost in the Wills and Probate board..

However, generally, the house is now owned, 100% by the father. If he wills that to his new wife, then that is who will get it.
 
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