justalayman
Senior Member
that would be correct. If you are now bound to the contract though, you have effectively reaffirmed the loan albeit delayed. You would have no right to reaffirm the loan for your ex. Maybe that is why they believe it caused no harm to have him continued on the loan obligation since his liability was cancelled by the bk and by him not signing, he still is not obligated.I thought the bankruptcy meant we could keep our home if we payed the mortgage.....if we stopped paying they could foreclose of course, but they couldn't turn around and sue us for extra money lost in the foreclosure process due to the bankruptcy.
The only other possibility I can imagine would be that this modification, somehow, does not reaffirm the debt.
This has now gone beyond my knowledge on the issue. Maybe somebody else will catch onto this and clear it up for the both of us.