Generally, there is plenty of notice between the foreclosure sale and the time the sheriff shows up with a truck. I wouldn't move until at earliest the first notice to vacate AFTER the foreclosure sale.
Really? Why do you think an already defaulted lender OWES the occupant, who has already been living free through the entire foreclosure process, and is often running up utility bills against the real estate that run to the property, ANY additional time over and above when the bank becomes owner? The honorable thing to do is leave upon confirmation. It is best for neighborhoods if the properties can get cleaned up and back into the hands of property tax paying OWNERs who will take care of long term maintenance needs of the property. Nobody else is going to replace roofs or gutters, paint, side, or do any significant maintenence. Late mom isn't. Nobody is overseeing the long term condition of the property in these circumstances.
It does NOT serve the communities to encourage the "free ride as long as I can get it at someone elses expense" mentality. These homes need to have occupants who are vested in the neighborhood and will take care of the long term needs of the place.
If a person who is living free through many months (and with deceased borrowers for which a Special Administration appointment was necessary BEFORE foreclosure could be started and a minimum of three months gets ADDED to the foreclosure process) of non payment hasn't saved up to move by foreclosure completion, another month or two is unlikely to make a difference.
THey were living there for literally YEARS - no savings accrued during all that time to try to bring the mortgage current or to move is the LENDER's responsibility, WHY? Why is the late mom's lender the one they now consider responsible to provide housing to them at no cost? And why are you stating the lender should be the one to do so, even after foreclosure? Even the Tenant Protection act EXCLUDES the child of the owner.
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