We are not talking about what was purchased but rather about the money that was used for the purchase. The money was either a loan to the friend that needs to be repaid or a gift to the friend for the purchase of a car.
It will be presumed a loan due to the relationship being friend-friend rather than family member-family member.
I get the presumption but a transfer of title is supportive of donative intent, or to hide financial or criminal liability.
I’m using what the op stated. Op said they bought a car for a friend. They didn’t say they loaned friend money to buy a car. That means if this all is a loan, op is entitled to whatever was loaned and since op states they purchased a car and (now claims) they loaned it to a friend, they should demand the return of their car (that’s where the name on the title can be used to support donative intent). Now a plaintiff can seek money in lieu of the vehicle if the friend refuses to return the specific item loaned but that is up to a court to rule on.
So, in short, per the op’s statement, no money was handed to the op but rather a car was caused to be delivered to them. That is what the op would be due.
This isn’t merely for the s semantics argument. It can make a difference if the car isn’t actually worth the price paid. If the op purchased a car worth much less than they paid, it is not the responsibility of the recipient of the loan to make up for that poor decision.