Im the parent and the child is 9 months old, so yes I understand the patient is the child not me, but she cannot speak for herself here.
if "the father" is "the legal father", he has the same standing as you concerning this information. As such, he has the same right to the information as you do. You have no right to restrict it from the father. So, while you argue you speak for the child, so does the father and that is who the information was given to.
ok now does everyone see why I am confused myself as to whether or not a violation has been made? One post says yes one says no. It apparently either isnt clear to the forum either or maybe my question isnt?
there is one thing that makes a difference: whether the father is legally acknowledged as the father. If he is, there is no breach of privacy as he is as entitled to the information as you and that is all that has happened.
I look at this as she is our child and issues concerning her are our business and not the business of his or my family first.
but it is the business of the legal father and that is who was given information.
My other thoughts are this, how do I know she hasnt called his parents, or discussed things with others who do not for fact have rights to this information.
you apparently don't so unless and until she does, it is irrelevant. You might want to give her some credit for knowing the law and disclosing information to only those legally entitled to it.
btw: the legal father can sign a HIPAA release to allow anybody he wants to be able to access the information to do so and you cannot countermand that permission. If he wants to sign a HIPAA release so that his parents can be given the information, he can.
Maybe what I see here is a lack of respect
that does not make it a legal issue. At most, it is an internal issue at the providers office.