David Jonathan
Member
What is the name of your state? Minnesota (where I live) (Dayton, OH where the property is located)
(basic questions at the top of this post, detailed story behind the questions at the bottom ... feel free to skip the story unless you're bored.)
I guess I'm really asking here ...
1) due on sale - effect me or him, if I'm the property owner, loan in his name
2) due on sale - how often are these exercised in todays market?
3) is this illegal in any way? (I think* I read somewhere it is, so I'm looking more for comfirmation on this)
simple yes or no's will work for me, or a simple point into the correct direction, I'm usually good at research, but I think my first two questions are looking for more expirence, and the 3rd question is the tie-breaker.
Thanks in Advance!
--Dave.
My Fiance and I have been looking into investment rental properties - I've got LOTS of landlord expirence (been living in and working for a trailer park for a few years now) but I am curious ... (if you ever read the collections section, you'd see why this opportunity appeals to me)
how often are "Due on sale" clauses exercised. I'd hate to drop $10,000 on a property, just to have it forclosed on leaving me as being the only one out the money.
How risky is an actual investment like this?
This "opportunity" feels too good to be true, and I'm about 99% sure I don't want to look any further into it, however, I do want to conduct all* my research about it. I asked the current seller how this would work and he said ...
"The deed to the property will either be given to you or placed in escrow. You have full ownership. That's important to the formula. Your risk is low. The existing loan will still be in force agaisnt the property. You simply come in and take over the payments. You collect the rent and disburse the funds to the mortgage company, just the same way as if it were your own loan."
I however am not seeing a formula there - I'm just seeing how he'd get $10,000, have a loan in his name and no ownership of the property, and could have an active "due on sale" forclosure in his near future, so I'd be out 10g's, he'd be out of a property, and the bank would have renters to deal with. AND - if he's incorporated his business, it won't effect his personal credit ... (is this what those late-night guru's teach?)
I already found out from my tax accountant (which is why I can't afford a real estate attorney, or spelling lessons) that I'd be paying income tax on all rent's collected, and best I could do is deduct what I was paying the management company. (that was kind of a "duh" question for the accountant, but I pay 'em for that stuff) and after some calculations based on the past year NOI on the property, after paying taxes, I'd break even - I'd own the property, run the property, but I wouldn't see a dime till they were paid off.
but, all that asside - I'd still like some to look into the rental market.
(basic questions at the top of this post, detailed story behind the questions at the bottom ... feel free to skip the story unless you're bored.)
I guess I'm really asking here ...
1) due on sale - effect me or him, if I'm the property owner, loan in his name
2) due on sale - how often are these exercised in todays market?
3) is this illegal in any way? (I think* I read somewhere it is, so I'm looking more for comfirmation on this)
simple yes or no's will work for me, or a simple point into the correct direction, I'm usually good at research, but I think my first two questions are looking for more expirence, and the 3rd question is the tie-breaker.
Thanks in Advance!
--Dave.
My Fiance and I have been looking into investment rental properties - I've got LOTS of landlord expirence (been living in and working for a trailer park for a few years now) but I am curious ... (if you ever read the collections section, you'd see why this opportunity appeals to me)
how often are "Due on sale" clauses exercised. I'd hate to drop $10,000 on a property, just to have it forclosed on leaving me as being the only one out the money.
How risky is an actual investment like this?
This "opportunity" feels too good to be true, and I'm about 99% sure I don't want to look any further into it, however, I do want to conduct all* my research about it. I asked the current seller how this would work and he said ...
"The deed to the property will either be given to you or placed in escrow. You have full ownership. That's important to the formula. Your risk is low. The existing loan will still be in force agaisnt the property. You simply come in and take over the payments. You collect the rent and disburse the funds to the mortgage company, just the same way as if it were your own loan."
I however am not seeing a formula there - I'm just seeing how he'd get $10,000, have a loan in his name and no ownership of the property, and could have an active "due on sale" forclosure in his near future, so I'd be out 10g's, he'd be out of a property, and the bank would have renters to deal with. AND - if he's incorporated his business, it won't effect his personal credit ... (is this what those late-night guru's teach?)
I already found out from my tax accountant (which is why I can't afford a real estate attorney, or spelling lessons) that I'd be paying income tax on all rent's collected, and best I could do is deduct what I was paying the management company. (that was kind of a "duh" question for the accountant, but I pay 'em for that stuff) and after some calculations based on the past year NOI on the property, after paying taxes, I'd break even - I'd own the property, run the property, but I wouldn't see a dime till they were paid off.
but, all that asside - I'd still like some to look into the rental market.