one more reason to hate my mother-in-law:-)

[opus05]

Just the details.....

- my mother-in-law is in upstate ny and my husband is currently in az (military)

- she gave my husband a piece of land that she said he could keep, or, she would sell it for him giving him money for it. He choose to have her sell it.

- Nothing was ever signed to say how much the amount would be, he just assumed that she would be fair (are you starting to see where the problem is yet?).

-yesterday, he gets a call from her saying that the land sold for $110,000.00 and that she would give him $5000.00 of that.

So, question time.....(and opinions, I'm sure ) I know that she CAN do this, but, because nothing was ever signed, is he entitled to more than just %5 of the sale, because she said it was his land?

 

[JETX]

Since there is NOTHING in writing, she can give him anything she wants, or doesn't want.
In order for ANY agreement on land ownership to be valid, it MUST be in writing. That means her 'verbal' promise of land is invalid. And with that, any promise of proceeds of sale of HER land is also not binding.

 

[pojo2]

are you starting to see where the problem is yet?).

Actually it is crystal clear!

is he entitled to more than just %5

He is ENTITLED to nothing! Her land, barring any actual title changes, to do with as she pleases. In hindsight maybe he should have taken the land, huh?

 

[opus05]

are you starting to see where the problem is yet?).

Actually it is crystal clear!

is he entitled to more than just %5

He is ENTITLED to nothing! Her land, barring any actual title changes, to do with as she pleases. In hindsight maybe he should have taken the land, huh?

yeah, that's what I figured. oh well, chalk it up to lesson learned.

 

[HomeGuru]

yes, live and learn......the hard way.