MomandDad2006
Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Tx or anywhere really
After reading a post yesterday and seeing a couple more like I have a question.
A father has a right to raise his child just as a mother does. Providing that the father/mother is willing to do so that is. I saw a lot of posts regarding visitation for the dad and when overnight visits should begin. Why not right away? I don't mean like as soon as baby gets home from hospital but how about a month old? Why is that not the way it is? My reasoning is based on this. In a home where both parents are together in a relationship both parents would likely participate in the baby's care. Midnight feedings, diaper changes, burping etc a dad can do those things as well. I don't understand how if bonding with dad is such a concern why he isn't allowed to begin doing it in his own home overnight until one year of age. I even asked my wife, she started to explain, then frowned and said really honey I don't know, I guess its just the way it is. Is it an excepted "fact" that mothers can care better for tiny babies. Is it thought that the baby may not bond as well with mom. I really don't understand this. My kids went to day care and there were baby's there that were just turning a month old. If such little ones can be left in the care of day care employees than why not fathers? What is the legal answer to this question. Legally how is that acceptable if fathers have equal right to parent their child, and why cant it start from birth, the equality?
It seems a little biased to me, would you guys/gals please help me to understand this. Thank you
After reading a post yesterday and seeing a couple more like I have a question.
A father has a right to raise his child just as a mother does. Providing that the father/mother is willing to do so that is. I saw a lot of posts regarding visitation for the dad and when overnight visits should begin. Why not right away? I don't mean like as soon as baby gets home from hospital but how about a month old? Why is that not the way it is? My reasoning is based on this. In a home where both parents are together in a relationship both parents would likely participate in the baby's care. Midnight feedings, diaper changes, burping etc a dad can do those things as well. I don't understand how if bonding with dad is such a concern why he isn't allowed to begin doing it in his own home overnight until one year of age. I even asked my wife, she started to explain, then frowned and said really honey I don't know, I guess its just the way it is. Is it an excepted "fact" that mothers can care better for tiny babies. Is it thought that the baby may not bond as well with mom. I really don't understand this. My kids went to day care and there were baby's there that were just turning a month old. If such little ones can be left in the care of day care employees than why not fathers? What is the legal answer to this question. Legally how is that acceptable if fathers have equal right to parent their child, and why cant it start from birth, the equality?
