You have it backward...It is not a "crime" unless they are recorded for a court action. That is because the criteria for recording someone for a court action are different. As they should be.
I don't mean to add fuel to the fire- but if we are figuring this out let's figure it out.....
I just googled tortious act- for my own clarification in understanding the relevant quote...
got this
tortious adj. referring to an act which is a tort (civil wrong).
d) It shall not be unlawful under this chapter for a person not acting under color of law to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication where such person is a party to the communication or where one of the parties to the communication has given prior consent to such interception
unless such communication is intercepted for the purpose of committing any criminal or tortious act in violation of the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any State.
obviously (in family court matters) recording the call is not for the purpose of committing a crome (ex- recording a call to get acct numbers or ssn numbers for identity theft)....it also does not strike me as a tortious act- civil wrong, (ex recording and attorney client call etc)
I'm not by any means saying I know the right answer here, but that's is how I am currently interpreting it based on the information I have.....if someone has a clearer interpretation or one more accurate, I certainly welcome it, for my own use, and for the clarification it would provide to so many who have this question....
of course my interpretation is based on the one party rule and I am expecting answers back on the one party rule....just to be clear so no "two party" residents think the answers may apply to them