fine, then support your opinions with actually applicable case law.
did you not just say:
why, yes you did. In fact, I copied and pasted it here. So, your question of "did I claim or assert" would be a ridiculous question because you just said they are synonymous.
but ultimately, yes, you did claim and as such, assert the employer cannot hold it against the op for not being able to call....
. it doesn't matter if every other employer wouldn't hold it against the employee. THe only thing that matters is; are they legally allowed to hold it against the employee and the answer to that would be; yes.
I guess you don't get out much.
again, irrelevant
yet you asserted that your opinion was in fact supported by law.
I have one thank you. Would you like to borrow it? It would appear you don't have one yourself.
Let me put my response to the Op in the perspective in which it was meant. I'm sorry I thought you and the others were intelligent enough to understand it! I was wrong.
First, I did tell the Op that she might have a case to contest her written warning based on the fact she did have a doctor's excuse.
Now "case" for all intents and purposes meant (if you are capable of reading between the lines) that since the OP was written up by what it seems is a power driven, arrogant, "look what I can do" supervisor for not following a company policy, the possibility that higher ranking bosses WOULD allow exceptions such as going to the doctor at lunch time and calling in sick for the remainder of the shift, might exist.
Therefore, the Op might go over the supervisor's head and appeal to someone who has a more reasonable understanding of such a company policy, and get the written warning rescinded.
I did give the Op the opinion that since such circumstance didn't happen too often, she should just keep a low profile and do her work and hopefully, the written warning will be expunged at a later date (perhaps 6 months down the line) as is the case in many work policies regarding the expungment of such warning slips.
And also, as I mentioned in another post, there are circumstances in which an employee such as the Op can rebut an at-will status by showing an implied contract of employment that will not allow termination except for "just cause". This means that if the circumstances are right, being fired because you called in sick and produced a doctor's note proving you were sick would not be a "just cause" termination.
And finally for you Justalayman, I did say an employer cannot hold it against the Op for calling in sick and producing a doctor's note. By that I meant "rightfully" and "fairly"! You see, I'm an optimistic person-I look at the glass as half full instead of half empty unlike many sarcastic, ignorant, ego stroking entities I am amongst during some periods of my days.
It is reasonable for me to believe (based on common sense) that the consensus of Plant Managers, Supervisors, Lead Persons, etc...do indeed allow for exceptions that would result in quite less than a written warning for what the Op did--perhaps a verbal warning. I've seen this senario many times over the course of my history as an employee, why is it so hard to see it in this circumstance?