What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? CA
I am leasing a home that is being foreclosed on.
I contacted the owner to see what she had to say about the foreclosure and she stated that the reason the loan shows as being in default is that when the mortgage rate adjusted, she wasn't aware of the new amount of payment and continued to make the OLD payment amount. She said that it's "standard" for lenders to then hold the money in an escrow account if it's not the correct amount and NOT credit it towards the loan. So, she's stated, she simply has to make up the difference and the loan will then be current
Is anyone aware of this rule of lenders? Is it true that this practice is standard and common? Or is it another part of the scam my landlord is running?
Edit to add:
The loan was refinanced this year, so within the past 8 months, is that enough time for a mortgage rate to adjust?
Thanks.
I am leasing a home that is being foreclosed on.
I contacted the owner to see what she had to say about the foreclosure and she stated that the reason the loan shows as being in default is that when the mortgage rate adjusted, she wasn't aware of the new amount of payment and continued to make the OLD payment amount. She said that it's "standard" for lenders to then hold the money in an escrow account if it's not the correct amount and NOT credit it towards the loan. So, she's stated, she simply has to make up the difference and the loan will then be current
Is anyone aware of this rule of lenders? Is it true that this practice is standard and common? Or is it another part of the scam my landlord is running?
Edit to add:
The loan was refinanced this year, so within the past 8 months, is that enough time for a mortgage rate to adjust?
Thanks.